Runners at first and second with the first baseman playing behind the runner. A pickoff was called at first but the first baseman missed the sign and didn't break for the bag. The pitcher made his throw to first and the ball hit the runner diving back into the bag. No one advanced until the ump called a balk. Correct call? This was a Legion game.

The ump made the correct call.

If the first baseman is not near the bag and attempting to make a play on the runner then it is a balk. This assumes, of course, that the pitcher didn't step off of the rubber with his pivot foot prior to making the throw. If he stepped off first, no balk.

pilsner,
Maybe we're not visualizing the same thing. I think the OP describes the pitcher throwing to first base, and the ball strikes the runner close to (within a catchable distance if F3 were there to catch it) the bag. This is not a balk, because the pitcher actually threw to first base. As long as the pitcher's throw passes over or sufficiently near to first base, F3 is optional.

If the pitcher throws too far away from the bag, then he needs to throw to F3 who has to be close enough to the runner to make a play.

The pitchers throw was on the money. F3 got to the bag late. The pitcher didn't step off.

quote:

Originally posted by Hostofchucks:
The pitchers throw was on the money. F3 got to the bag late. The pitcher didn't step off.

This is NOT a balk, The pitcher followed the rules and threw TO THE BASE, Nothing in 8.00 penalizes the pitcher for a mistake by F3.

Now, if F3 was away from the bag an unable to makea play and the pitcher threw to him...that wojuld be a balk.

Evans' Video has a couple of good examples of this.

My mistake. I envisioned the fielder taking the throw away from the bag. OP said otherwise.