Rule 8.05 Comment: Umpires should bear in mind that the purpose of the balk rule is to prevent the pitcher from deliberately deceiving the base runner. If there is doubt in the umpire’s mind, the "intent" of the pitcher should govern. However, certain specifics should be borne in mind:
(b) [(b) With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base. [/b]

does this mean a RHP can legally just do this spin pickoff move to 2B whether R1 is stealing or not?

From what I understand about the rule is that a pitcher can throw to an unoccupied base at any time "as long" as he believes a play will be made at that base. With only a runner on first the pitcher can throw while touching his plate directly towards second for the purpose of catching the baserunner stealing.

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or

I understand that. The comment seems to address a specific situation of R1 and doesn't mention stealing...that's what is confusing.

anybody?

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8.05 CMT With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base.

Here's a comment by Carl Childress, writing in Baseball Rule Differences, which is widely used by umpires as an aid to interpretation of the FED, NCAA, and OBR rules. 2004 edition.

"The OBR specifically informs the umpire that he shall not interpret the move as throwing to an unoccupied base. But when you fail to call a balk in FED (and perhaps in NCAA), be ready to explain yourself to the coach. Of course, the runner must be moving, not merely bluffing a steal of second."

The key here is that by turning completely to second, the pitcher demonstrates that he is trying to make a play on a runner who has already committed to second base. That's very different from a pitcher who starts to pick off at first, and decide to go to second instead. That would be a balk for feinting (failing to throw) to first.

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The comment seems to address a specific situation of R1 and doesn't mention stealing...that's what is confusing.

Since you put it that way I agree.

Though I've read this a few thousand times and know exactly how I and a couple million other umpires would rule on this...

Your right, as written, it seems to say:

If R1, then F1 would be allowed to, as long as he spun "towards" 1B, throw to an unoccupied 2B all day long..

But if he did and R1 wasn't going, trust me, he gets balked all day long.

GBman:
From what I understand about the rule is that a pitcher can throw to an unoccupied base at any time "as long" as he believes a play will be made at that base

No, only times when he AND the Umpire/s think there will be a play at that base.

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No, only times when he AND the Umpire/s think there will be a play at that base.

I agree with ya there.

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If R1, then F1 would be allowed to, as long as he spun "towards" 1B, throw to an unoccupied 2B all day long..

Thanks jjk. Not to beat a dead horse, but you added "spun toward 1B". A right-handed pitcher should be allowed to spin his front leg and body clockwise and throw to an unoccupied second base to make a play, i.e. he doesn't spin toward 1B like a left-handed pitcher would.

This could happen quite often in youth baseball since kids steal on every pitch.

thanks

There are no lefty or righty pitching rules. Either pitcher can spin either way when throwing to 2nd base.