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Had this happen in a playoff game. Fed rules. 1 Out, R1, R2. Batter hits a fly ball to shallow Center. As the center fielder is settling under it, R2 is tagging and R1 is going 1/2 way. The center fielder drops the ball, picks it up immediately and overthrows 3rd before R2 had reached it. R1 had not reached 2B at Time of Throw, however B/R has attained 1B. Umpire rules R1 and R2 score and B/R gets 3B. I argue that at TOT R2 was still on 2b. He gets home and R1 should get 3B. What's the right ruling?

Of course, we lost by 1.
 
Posts: 18 | Location: Scholls, OR | Registered: May 13, 2009Reply With QuoteEdit or Delete MessageReport This Post
HSBBWeb Old Timer
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If, in fact, the runner who was on 1st hadn't reached 2nd base at the time of the throw he should have been awarded 3rd base. The maximum award for a throw that goes out of play is two bases. Can't award two bases to the B/R even if he had passed 1st at the time of the throw because this would result in two runners occupying the same base. (3rd) The B/R in this case should only have been awarded 2nd base.
 
Posts: 506 | Location: Saratoga County, NY | Registered: June 20, 2005Reply With QuoteEdit or Delete MessageReport This Post
HSBBWeb Old Timer
Picture of Michael S. Taylor
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You go Pilsner, good call.


Michael S. Taylor
Umpire-Empire.com
 
Posts: 1259 | Location: Salisbury, Md | Registered: January 18, 2003Reply With QuoteEdit or Delete MessageReport This Post
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